OWNERSHIP: Re: the theorem: SAY'S LAW

["William B. Ryan" <w_b_ryan@yahoo.com>]

We are talking about the purchasing power they should 
have has opposed to the purchasing power they do 
have.
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Does this make more sense?

We are talking about the purchasing power they are 
assumed (Say's Law) to have, as opposed to the 
purchasing power they do have.

------original message------
"...it appears irrational to suggest that people have 
a right to buy whatever they want to buy regardless 
of their purchasing power."


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